We like to josh our American cousins over the fact that they can't speak proper English, but actually I think that many of the most heinous crimes against the language take place on this side of the Atlantic.
Earlier this week a shop assistant apologised for giving me a handful of pound coins in my change because "I ain't got no fivers". I resisted pointing out that he was talking nonsense because a) life is too short and b) he was a lot bigger than me.
Here are some other common phrases that really grate when I hear them:
The only Americanisms that I can think of that come close to those are "gotten" and "math" (instead of "maths").
I'm curious: when is something poor usage and when is it dialect? I guess it can be both, but if something is part of a dialect then I tend to think of it in easier terms. (I think of a dialect as phrasing as well as pronunciation; I'm not sure if that's correct.)
For instance, in Western Pennsylvania, many people add an "at" to a location inquiry: "Where are you at?" (Or more often: "Where're you at?") "Where's the bookstore at?" Obviously this is redundant, but since it seems to me to be part of a dialect it doesn't irritate me. In fact, I find myself picking up the pattern when I talk to certain people. But that's the subject of an entirely different thread
Re:Poor usage vs. dialect
vsergu on 2002-03-23T23:10:37
I don't think "where at" in that dialect is really redundant. It's just making a distinction that standard English doesn't anymore. It used to, by using "where" and "whither" for what that dialect expresses by "where... at" and "where ... to". Then people started using "where" for "whither", which no doubt drove the pedants of the time up the wall. It's sort of like the use of "y'all" or "youse" or various other words to bring back the distinction that was lost when people started indiscriminately using "you" (instead of "thou") to refer to a single person.
I don't quite understand complaints about "of" in place of "have" in speech. I can see that people would find it annoying in writing, but I don't see how in speech you can tell for sure whether someone's saying "should of" or "should've".
Re:Damn You!
pudge on 2002-03-24T00:31:16
Hm. First, Webster's notes that either may be more than just two options:Scarce a palm of ground could be gotten by either of the three. --Bacon.
Additionally, that it might mean all options:His flowing hair In curls on either cheek played. --Milton.On either side... was there the tree of life. --Rev. xxii. 2.
But, if you'd like to argue with Webster, Bacon, Milton, and GOD, be my guest.:-) Re:Damn You!
james on 2002-03-25T14:46:13
Its not really that I'd care to argue, just that it leads to complete ambiguity.
Either meaning one or the other vs. either meaning both, and no real way to tell the difference. One definition contradicts the other.
Maybe I'm wrong in saying that its incorrect English, but it certainly isn't clear english:-)
Re:Damn You!
pudge on 2002-03-25T16:42:17
Context is usually clear enough to determine in which sense it is being used.